Biotech CTE Improved Practice final 5 Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. ____
1. Which of these pictures shows staphylococcus aureus? a. c.
b.
d.
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2. When performing electrophoresis on a gel, which electrod should the wells in the gel be closest to? a. neutral c. negative b. polar d. positive
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3. What color is the negative electrode in the elctrophoresis chamber? a. Red c. Blue b. Black d. White
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4. What is the purpose of Polymerase Chaine Reaction (PCR)? a. To replicate protein. c. To transform a gene. b. To produce DNA nucleotides. d. To amplify DNA or portions of DNA
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5. For a step in a lab protocol, you need to pipette 19 uL of a liquid into a tube. Which piece of equipment would do this most accurately? a. 2 uL - 20 uL pipette c. 10 uL - 100 uL pipette b. 0.1 uL - 10 uL pipette d. 20 uL - 200 uL pipette
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6. Which of the following is NOT a properly balanced centrifuge?
a.
d.
g.
b.
e.
h.
c.
f.
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7. Which of the follwoing items would not be found on an MSDS (Materials Safety Data Sheet) for a chemical? a. Substance Name c. Cost of the Product b. Chemical characteristics of the product d. Health hazards
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8. Which of the choices below shows the correct sequence of substances in protein synthesis? a. mRNA > DNA > rRNA > tRNA > amino acid > protein. b. DNA > mRNA > rRNA > tRNA > amino acid > protein. c. mRNA > DNA > rRNA > amino acid > tRNA > protein. d. mRNA > DNA > rRNA > tRNA > protein > amino acid. e. DNA > rRNA > mRNA > tRNA > amino acid > protein.
____
9. Which of the measurements below is equal to 0.5 mL? a. 5 uL d. 5000 uL b. 50 uL e. 0.05 uL c. 500 uL f. 0.005 uL
____ 10. The regions within the DNA that do no code for the production of a protein are called: a. snRNPs c. nucleosomes b. Exons d. introns ____ 11. Gram Formula Weight (GFW) is a term that means the same as Molar Mass. So, if the GFW of Carbon is 12.01 and the GFW of Oxygen is 16.00, what is the GFW of CO2? a. 28.01 c. 32.01 b. 44.01 d. 4.401 ____ 12. What is it about a bacteria that allows it to be gram stained?
a. b. c. d.
The composition of its cytoplasm. The amount and type of DNA it has. The structure of the cell wall. Its shape.
____ 13. During bacterial transformation, a plasmid (a circular piece of DNA) is inserted into a bacterium. This DNA provides the bacterium with the genes needed to become resistant to a specific antibiotic. How can this be useful in transforming bacteria with additional traits? a. Any cell transformed with the plasmid will be unable to grow on a medium containing the antibiotic. b. Any cell transformed with the plasmid will be able to grow on a medium containing the antibiotic. c. Both transformed AND untransformed cells can grom on this media. d. Cells that are decendants of the original bacteria will be unable to grow on a medium containing that antibiotic. ____ 14. Aside from 10% bleach, which of the solutions below is BEST for disinfecting a bench top? a. 70% alcohol c. distilled water b. soapy water d. 70% windex ____ 15. Which of the following should not be autoclaved? a. glass pipette d. liquid antibiotics b. glass flask e. liquid nutrient broth c. glass beaker f. solid agar media ____ 16. Some chemicals and biological substances work best in a very narrow range of pH. Which of these would be best for a substance that requires only a SLIGHT acid environment? a. pH 2 c. pH 9 b. pH 6 d. pH 12 ____ 17. What does an autoclave do? a. Determins the concentration of chemicals or other substances in a solution. b. Measures the molar mass of an object. c. Maintains a constant temperature which allows bacterial samples to grow. d. Sterilizes substances and equipment using heat and pressure. ____ 18. In genetic engineering, DNA from one species is added to the DNA of another species. What could be used to cut the DNA of the target and source DNA in order to do this? a. DNA ligase c. DNA Buffers b. Restriction Enzymes d. a stron acid. ____ 19. What is the primary difference between prokaryotes (bacteria) and eukaryotes? a. Eukaryotes have a nulceus, prokayotes do not. b. Prokaryotes have a nulceus, eukayotes do not. c. Prokaryotes do not have mitochondria, eukaryotes do. d. Eukaryotes are more complex than prokaryotes. ____ 20. In a molecule of DNA, the two backbones are held together at the center by bonds between the bases of the two strands. What type of bond is this? a. Covalent c. Polar b. Hydrogen d. Ionic
____ 21. Which piece of lab equipment below could be used to measure the amount of a substance contained in a solution? a. Centrifuge d. Spectrophotometer b. Micropipette e. Metric Balance c. Thermal Cycler ____ 22. Which of the following bases is found in DNA but not RNA? a. Adnine d. Guanine b. Thymine e. Uracil c. Cytosine ____ 23. Which of the following bases is found in RNA but not DNA? a. Adnine d. Guanine b. Thymine e. Uracil c. Cytosine ____ 24. Enzymes belong to which category of substances? a. Nucleic Acids c. Proteins b. Carbohydrates d. Lipids ____ 25. In the lane labeled “Child”, wich band represents the longest fragment of DNA?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
____ 26. To make 3 Liters of a 4 molar EDTA solution, how many grams of EDTA would need to be added?
EDTA: (C10H16N2O8) Molar mass: 292.24 g/mol a. 35,068.8 g b. 3,506.88 g
c. 350.69 g d. 351 g
____ 27. How many grams of agarose powder would you need to prepare 225 ml of a 2% electrophoresis gel? a. 4.5 mL c. 45 g e. 450 g b. 4.5 g d. 45 mL f. 450 mL ____ 28. Which substance on a DNA gell is used to calculate the sizes of all of the other bands of DNA in that gel? a. Standard Control c. Crime Scene Lane b. Standard Marker d. Known Suspect Fingerprints ____ 29. Which of these would be used to calculate the size of all other DNA bands in the gell?
a. Standard b. Male 2 c. Male 1
d. Female 2 e. Female 1 f. Child
____ 30. How many moles of NaCL are in a bottle that contains 500g of NaCl? The molar mass of NaCl = 58.44g. a. 8 moles c. 8.6 moles b. 86 moles d. 9 moles ____ 31. What is the best way to determine the concentration of bacteria growning in a liquid medium? a. Extract the DNA from the bacteria and run electrophoresis with it. b. Measure the optical density of a sample of the solution with a spectrophotometer. c. Hold it up to examples and estimate. d. Use a spectrophotometer and meaure the light transmition when compared to a blank filled with sterile broth, ____ 32. Which of these is the correct function of a buffer? a. To stabilize the pH in a chemical reaction. b. To increase pH in a chemical reaction. c. To decrease pH in a chemical reaction. d. To neutralize pH in a chemical reaction. ____ 33. In the pGLO lab, we used agar plates that had special additives in them (ampicillin and arabinose). The problem with these substances is that they are heat sensitive - they denature in high heat. When would be the best time to add these things to the agar when preparing agar plates for bacteria? a. At the same time that you add the agar powder to dissolve. b. Right after you autoclave the agar. c. When the liquid has cooled, but not cooled enough to solidify. d. Right before you sterilize the agar in an autoclave. e. Right after the medium clarifies. ____ 34. You are asked to dilute a stock solution of 3M CuSO4. You need the new solution you are making to be 50 mL of 0.5M CuSO4. How much of the original solution will you need to make this diluted new solution? a. 83.3 mL c. 8.33 mL b. .833 mL d. .083 mL ____ 35. The chart below shows several characteristics that can be used to identify bacteria (bacterial shape, cell arrangement, Gram staining, and motility of a cell). Use it to answer the following question:
After testing an unknown specimen of bacteria for several different characteristics, the results for a particular bacteria showed that it is a non-motile, Gram-positive Cocci, that appears in sets of 4 or 2. What bacteria is this most likely to be? a. Staphylococcus aureus c. Escherichia coli b. Pasteurella multocida d. Micrococcus luteus ____ 36. In lab, when you place a sample of bacteria into a centrifuge tube and centrifuge it, you are most likely trying to do what? a. Extract a protein from the bacteria. c. Pull the cells out of solution. b. Extract a plasmid from the bacteria. d. Replicate the DNA inside the bacteria. ____ 37. In protein synthesis, what is the purpose of the ribosome? a. Translating the tRNA and rRNA to form a chain of amino acids. b. Transcribinging the mRNA to form a chain of amino acids. c. Translating the mRNA to form a chain of amino acids. d. Transcribing the mRNA, rRNA & tRNA to form a chain of amino acids. e. Translating the mRNA, rRNA & tRNA to form a chain of amino acids. ____ 38. PCR is a process used to copy DNA in a tube. In order to copy both backbones of the template DNA, what must be attached to the beginning and end of the region of template DNA being copied? a. DNTP’s c. Taq Polmerase b. MgCl2 d. Primers ____ 39. What is the difference between solid bacterial growth medium and liquid growth medium? a. Solid medium contains agar to make it solidify. b. Liquid medium contains agar to make it solidify. c. Solid medium does not contain any nutrients for bacterial growth. d. Liquid medium does not contain any nutrients for bacterial growth.
____ 40. What is the volume of liquid contained in a microcentrifuge tube? a. 1.5 mL c. 3 mL b. 1 mL d. 5 mL ____ 41. The “T” method for streaking bacterial plates is a technique used to do what? a. Add antibiotics to a bacterial agar. b. Isolate individual bacterial colonies. c. Pour agar into bacterial plates. d. Label bacterial plates with information. ____ 42. Why are bacterial agar plates turn upside-down when they are placed in the incubator to grow? a. To force the bacteria to grow on the surface of the agar instead of growing into the agar. b. To prevent condensation from dripping onto the bacterial colonies and ruining the colony characteristics. c. To speed the growth of bacterial colonies. d. to prevent the smell from escaping from the dish. ____ 43. After mRNA modification, a piece of mRNA has 180 nucleotides in it. Based on what you know about protein synthesis, how many amino acids would be in a chain that is translated from it? a. 30 d. 45 b. 60 e. 180 c. 18 ____ 44. Which of the following would be the complimentary DNA strand to the one pictured below? 5’ - ATCGCTAGTTCAT - 3’ a. 3’ - TAGCGATCAAGTA - 5’ b. 3’ - TACGCATCAAGTA - 5’
c. 5’ - TAGCGATCAAGTA - 3’ d. 5’ - TAGCGATCAAGAT - 3’
Multiple Response Identify one or more choices that best complete the statement or answer the question. ____ 45. Which of these organelles have DNA? a. Nucleus b. Lysosome
c. Ribosome d. Mitochondria
____ 46. Based on the diagram below, choose which two individuals are the parents of the child whose DNA fingerprint is found in lane 8. Remember, a child receives half of their DNA from their mom and half from their dad. (Choose 2, 1 male and 1 female.)
a. b. c. d.
Standard Male 1 Male 2 Male 3
e. Female 1 f. Female 2 g. Female 3
____ 47. In the pGLO transformation lab that we did in class, there were 4 plates used (1 LB -, 1 LB/AMP -, 1 LB/AMP +, & 1 LB/AMP/ARA +). What are some possible reasons that there were bacteria growing on the LB/AMP - plate? Choose as many as apply: a. Ampicillin was left out of the agar on accident. b. The ampicillan did not work correctly. c. A strain of AMP-resistant bacteria may have accidentally been used. d. The bacteria ate the ampicillan in the agar and allowed colonies to form afterward. ____ 48. Which of the following are NOT required to complete PCR? You may choose more than one or only one. a. DNTPs (single nucleotides) d. helicase b. Primers e. didNTPs c. taq Polymerase ____ 49. Which of the following are able to alter a protein’s shape? Choose 1 or more: a. Temperature d. Addition of more enzyme. b. Changes in pH e. Increased salt concentration c. Addition of buffers f. Addition of alcohol ____ 50. Name the two phases involved in protein synthesis: a. Interpretation c. Translation b. Transcription d. Replication ____ 51. Which of the following processes have nothing to do with preparing bacteria to viewed under a microscope? Choose 1 or more. a. Heating a bacterial sample b. Heat fixing a bacterial sample c. Making the bacterial sample competent. d. Pelleting the bacteria e. Staining a bacterial sample ____ 52. Which of the following is not a category of proteins? a. Structural Proteins d. Nucleic Acids b. Carbohydrates e. Amino Acids
c. Enzymes ____ 53. If you are using a solution in lab that has a neutral pH, and you would like to make it slightly acidic. Which of the substances could be added to the solution to accomplish this? a. HCl c. H2SO4 b. NaCl d. NaOH ____ 54. Which of the following are not things that you do to prevent contamination while working with bacteria and bacterial agar? a. Flame the innoculation loop. b. Flame the mouth of a container being used. c. Spray the agar in a plate with alcohol or bleach. d. Wash your hands. e. Seal the petrie dish with parafilm. Matching Use the diagram to answer the question.
a. A b. B
c. C
____ 55. Which letter in the diagram represents the sugar deoxyribose? ____ 56. Which letter in the diagram represents the nitrogen base? ____ 57. Which letter in the diagram represents the phosphate? Match the level of protein structure with the correct description a. Primary c. Tertiary b. Secondary d. Quarternary ____ 58. This is represented by alpha helices and beta pleated sheets. ____ 59. This is the sequence or order of amino acids in the polypeptide chain. ____ 60. This is the combination of several polypeptide chains to make a fully functional ____ 61. This is the overal shape created by a single polypeptide chain. Match the type of bacterial growth medium with its most appropriate use. a. Liquid LB Broth c. Test Tube Slants b. Agar plates d. Agar Stabs ____ 62. This medium should be used when trying to embed bacteria into the medium itself.
____ 63. You are trying to rapidly grow large numbers of bacteria for use in an experiment. ____ 64. You are trying to grow individual colonies of identical cells State the purpose for the following process: a. To compare the concentration of a solution to a known standard. b. Creating a sequence of solutions that decrease in concentration by a specific amount or percent. c. Creating a sequence of solutions that increase in concentration by a specific amount or percent. d. To make a solution that is not as strong as the original solution. e. To determine the amount of solute needed for a specific solution. f. To make a solution that is stronger than the original solution. ____ 65. What is the reason for doing a serial dilution? ____ 66. What is the reason for diluting a liquid? ____ 67. What is the reason for calculating molar mass? ____ 68. What is the reason for using a blank in a spectrophotometer? Match the correct function with the organelle below: a. Conmtains mRNA and produces protein. b. Conatins all DNA and directs cell activities. c. Creates ATP to power cell activities. d. Produces protein. e. Produces protein and directs all cell activities. ____ 69. Ribosome ____ 70. Mitochondria ____ 71. Nucleus What does the following symbol stand for? a. Disposal alert b. Biohazard
____ 72.
____ 73.
____ 74.
c. Fume hazard d. Wear eye protection
____ 75. What is the function of the DNA replication enzyme listed below? a. Adding nucleotides to the growing DNA strand. b. Sealing the backbone of replicated DNA. c. Adds RNA primers to the template DNA. d. Untwisting and “unzipping” the enzyme. e. Removes RNA Primers from the new DNA strand. ____ 76. Ligase ____ 77. Helicase ____ 78. DNA polymerase ____ 79. RNA primase ____ 80. RNAse H Match the type of chemical bond with how it works. a. Ionic c. Hydrogen b. Covalent ____ 81. Sharing of electrons between two electrons. ____ 82. Transferring of electrons from one atom to another. ____ 83. An attraction between opposite charges on atoms.
a. introns
b. exons
____ 84. These are the non-coding regions of DNA in a eukaryotic gene. ____ 85. These are the regions of a gene that code for the production of a protein in a eukaryotic gene.
Biotech CTE Improved Practice final 2012 Answer Section MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40.
ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS:
B C B D A E C B C D B C B A D B D B A B D B E C A B B B A C B A C C D C C D A A
PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
41. 42. 43. 44.
ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS:
B B B A
PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:
1 1 1 1
PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
MULTIPLE RESPONSE 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54.
ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS:
A, D B, E A, B, C D, E A, B, E, F B, C A, C, D B, D, E A, C C, E
MATCHING 55. ANS: B 56. ANS: A 57. ANS: C
PTS: 1 PTS: 1 PTS: 1
58. 59. 60. 61.
PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:
ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS:
B A D C
1 1 1 1
62. ANS: D 63. ANS: A 64. ANS: B
PTS: 1 PTS: 1 PTS: 1
65. 66. 67. 68.
PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:
ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS:
B D E A
1 1 1 1
69. ANS: D 70. ANS: C 71. ANS: B
PTS: 1 PTS: 1 PTS: 1
72. 73. 74. 75.
PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:
ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS:
B D A C
1 1 1 1
76. 77. 78. 79. 80.
ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS:
B D A C E
PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:
1 1 1 1 1
81. ANS: B 82. ANS: A 83. ANS: C
PTS: 1 PTS: 1 PTS: 1
84. ANS: B 85. ANS: A
PTS: 1 PTS: 1
