Chapter-1 Introduction to Market
Self Assessment Questions 1. Which of the following information forms available to the marketing manager can usually be accessed more quickly and cheaply than other information sources? (a).Marketing intelligence (b).Marketing research (c).Customer profiles (d) Internal databases
2. Which of the following is currently the fastest-growing form of marketing? (a) consumer-generated marketing (b) online marketing (c) social marketing (d) word-of-mouth marketing
3. Marketing is successful only when it is capable of maximizing profitable sales and achieves longrun customer satisfaction (a) True
4. The ultimate aim of customer relationship management is to produce ……………….. (a)market share (b)sales volume (c) profits (d) customer equity
5. The product concept states that consumers will favor products that offer the most quality, performance, and features, and that the organization should therefore devote its energy to making continuous product improvements. (a) True
6. Customers buy from stores and firms that offer the highest ………………. (a)level of customer satisfaction (b)customer perceived value (c)concern for society's interests (d)value for the dollar
7. The set of marketing tools a firm uses to implement its marketing strategy is called the …………... (a)product mix (b)marketing mix (c)TQM (d)promotion mix
8. Which of the following reflects the marketing concept philosophy? (a)"We're in the business of making and selling superior products." (b)"When it's profits versus customers' needs, profits will always win out." (c)"We don't have a marketing department, we have a customer department." (d)"We build them so you can buy them."
9. Marketing is more than a mere physical process of distributing goods and services.
10. Which of the following marketing management concepts is most likely to lead to marketing myopia? (a)customer-driving marketing (b)customer-driven marketing (c)production (d)selling 11. Marketing is a social process that occurs in all economies, regardless of their political structure and orientation. (a) True
12. A ……………………. is a good offered either free or at low cost as an incentive to buy a product. (a).patronage reward (b).spiff (c).price pack (d).premium
13. Marketing department let alone can satisfy all the needs of customer. (a) True
14. Sellers that handle their own exports are engaged in: a.direct exporting.
b.indirect exporting. c.licensing. d.contract manufacturing.
15. Demographic is a major element to be studied in environment analysis. (a) True
16. The use of price points for reference to different levels of quality for a company's related products is typical of which product-mix pricing strategy? a.
Product line pricing
……………….. is the process of evaluating each market segment's attractiveness and selecting one or more segments to enter.
18. The socio-cultural environment includes institutions and other forces that affect the basic values, behaviors, and preferences of the society-all of which have an effect on consumer marketing decisions. (a) True
A ……………. is a promotion strategy that calls for using the sales force and trade promotion to move the product through channels.
20. The economic environment can have a major impact on businesses by affecting patters of Demand and Supply. (a) True
Answers for Self Assessment Questions 1. (d) 2.(b) 3.(a) 6. (b) 7.(c) 8.(c) 11. (a) 12.(d) 13.(b) 16. (d) 17.(c) 18.(a)
4.(d) 9.(a) 14.(a) 19.(a)
5.(a) 10.(c) 15.(a) 20.(a)
Chapter-2 Managing Marketing Communication Self Assessment Questions 1. Horizontal Communication is essential for: a. Solving problems b. Accomplishing tasks c.
Improving teamwork d. All of these
2. Developing a promotional program for a new service begins with: a. b. c. d.
Choosing a promotional message Determining promotional objectives Choosing an appropriate medium Evaluating alternative media
3. The process of communication begins when one person (the sender) wants to transmit a fact, idea, opinion or other information to someone else (the receiver). (a) True
4. Within the promotional mix, public relations is most likely to be an important element for an innovative new product which is in the ……………….. stage of its life cycle: a. b. c. d.
introduction growth saturation decline
5. Communication channel is the media through which the message passes. (a) True
6. Noise is an important element of the process of communicating a promotional message. Which of the following offers the best general definition of noise in this context? a. b. c. d.
The effects of music drowning out the sales message in a radio advert. Excessive graphic display in a press advert. Excessive graphic display in a TV advert. Interference which occurs between the message source and the receiver.
7. There are many methods of determining a company's total promotional budget. Which of the following methods is generally considered the most appropriate for addressing the marketing needs of a product at the current stage in its lifecycle? a. b. c. d.
Percentage of sales Objective and task Residual Comparative parity
8. Claude Shannon’s models of communication that introduced was …………………….. a. 1947 b. 1935 c.
d. 19449 9. Message and media are brought together with a planned time framework in a: a. b. c. d.
Service blueprint Campaign Communication model Communication process
10. In Berlo’s model, he stresses on the relationship between the person sending the message and the receiver. (a) True
11. All of the following are essential elements of Direct Marketing, EXCEPT………….. a. b. c. d.
A record of existing and potential customers A system for measuring response A mass media advertising campaign A system to follow up inquiries
12. Formal communication channels are based on an individual’s role in the organization and distributed in an organized way according to the established chain in organizational charts. (a) True
13. Which of the following best illustrates the principles of viral marketing? a. A "teaser" campaign in the press that aims to get the public and talking about the company's product. b. Spreading viruses through the internet in order to gain attention. c. Using multiple communication channels to disseminate a uniform message. d. Targeting a message at one person who is then encouraged to pass it to a number of friends, each of whom in turn also pass it on. 14. Gestures are the physical movements of the arms, legs, hands, torso and head. (a) True
15. Which of the following is NOT generally recognized as an element of the promotion mix? a. b. c. d.
Dvertising PR Pricing Sponsorship
16. Upward communication is the flow of information from subordinates to superiors, or from employees to management. (a) True
17. What are the advantages of using radio advertising? a. Reaches target market. b. Reinforce print campaign. c.
d. Cheap and effective.
18. Voice Mail is a computer-based system for receiving and responding to incoming telephone calls. (a) True
19. Which of the following is not considered part of the carefully blended mix of promotion tools?
a. Relationship marketing b. Personal selling. c. Public relations. d. Advertising. 20. Where a manufacturer aggressively sells its products to wholesalers, this is known as……… a. b. c. d.
Direct marketing Direct sale A "pull" distribution strategy A "push" distribution strategy
Answers for Self Assessment Questions 1. (a) 2.(b) 3.(a) 6. (d) 7.(b) 8.(c) 11. (a) 12.(a) 13.(d) 16. (a) 17.(b) 18.(a)
4.(a) 9.(b) 14.(a) 19.(a)
5.(a) 10.(a) 15.(c) 20.(d)
Chapter-3: Marketing Strategy and Planning
Self Assessment Questions 1. Marketing Planning can then be used: a. To assess how well the organization is doing in its markets. b. To identify current strengths and weaknesses in these markets. c.
To establish marketing objectives to be achieved in these markets.
d. All of above
2. The …………………….. process commences at corporate level. Here the organization sets out its overall mission, purpose, and values. a) researching b) strategic planning c) controlling d) managing
3. A statement about what an organization wants to become, which sets out an organization's future, is referred to as: a) mission. b) values. c) organizational goals. d) vision.
4. A statement that sets out what the organization wishes to achieve in the long term is referred to as: a) mission. b) vision. c) values.
d) strategic context.
5. Organizational values are important because they: a) help shape mission statements. b) help increase sales. c) help guide behaviour and the recruitment and selection decisions. d) help define market research.
6. The Strategic Marketing Planning process consists of a series of logical steps and these steps can be aggregated into four phases. Which of the following is not included in the phases of the strategic marketing planning? a) Defining marketing strategy. b) Setting the right mission and corporate goals. c) Reviewing the current situation. d) Formulating strategy. 7. Marketing plan is achieved at the end of the planning process and should be a short, working, summary document of all the environment analysis which precedes it. (a) True
8. SWOT is an acronym for: a) strategy, working, opinion, tactical. b) strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, threats. c) strategy, work, openness, toughness. d) strategy, weakness, opinions, tactics.
9. In SWOT analysis, situations where organizations are able to convert weaknesses into strengths and threats into opportunities, these are called: a) strategic windows. b) strategic leverage. c) conversion strategies. d) vulnerability.
10. The competitive analysis is a statement of the business strategy and how it relates to the competition. (a) True
11. ………………. is the process that helps managers understand the nature of the industry, the way firms behave competitively within the industry, and how competition is generally undertaken. a) Market needs analysis b) Portfolio analysis c) Strategic market analysis d) Organizational analysis
12. These objectives are often employed in mature markets as firms/products enter a decline phase. The goal is to maximize short-term profits and stimulate a positive cash flow. a) Harvest objectives. b) Divest objectives. c) Hold objectives. d) Growth objectives.
13. Strategic management can also be defined as a bundle of decisions and acts which a manager undertakes and which decides the result of the firm’s performance.
14. This type of growth refers to concentrating activities on markets and/or products that are familiar. a) Diversification. b) Condensive. c) Integrative. d) Intensive. 15. Product development is usually recognized as a formal stage in the product life cycle, many ideas for long-term product planning are derived from the concepts that are generated through this preliminary process. (a) True
16. An organization can offer standard products at acceptable levels of quality, yet still generate above-average profit margin by adopting ………………... a) differentiation b) focus strategy c) cost leadership d) market follower strategy
17. Product is new; persuading the market to buy the product is of secondary importance to informing the public that the product exists. (a) True
18. …………………….. are about organizations seeking gaps in broad market segments or finding gaps in competitors' product ranges. a) Market niche strategies b) Differentiation c) Cost leadership
d) Focus strategies
19. Diversification is best described as which of the following? a) Existing products in new markets. b) Existing products in existing markets. c) New products for new markets. d) New products for existing markets.
20. Key performance indicators, which companies set and measure their progress towards in order to determine whether or not they have improved or maintained their performance over a given period of time, are referred to as: a) marketing implementation. b) marketing programs. c) budgeting. d) marketing metrics.
Answers for Self Assessment Questions 1. (d) 2.(b) 3.(d) 6. (a) 7.(a) 8.(b) 11. (c) 12.(a) 13.(a) 16. (c) 17.(a) 18.(d)
4.(a) 9.(c) 14.(d) 19.(c)
5.(c) 10.(a) 15.(b) 20.(d)
Chapter-4: Managing Marketing Channels
Self Assessment Questions 1. In marketing jargon and according to the elements of the marketing mix, distribution is often referred to as ____________, to cover the decisions and strategies that enable the product to flow to the consumer, whether from the market direct to the home, via a wholesaler or from a retail outlet. a. positioning b. place c.
d. promotions 2. A wholesaler is a marketing intermediary that sells to other organizations. (a) True
3. Retailers have to ensure a close match between their capabilities and the merchandise offered. They must have a clear understanding of which of the following? a. Store location; customer service. b. Store location; customer service; intermediaries; merchandise selection; image. c.
Store location; customer service; merchandise selection; image.
d. Store location; customer service; intermediaries.
4. Wholesalers are not yet obsolete, but must change their functions to remain viable. (a) True
5. Without the back-up of a customer orientation, which of the following would be resolved to suit the supplier's, not the customer's, abilities and preferences? a. Quality. b. Location. c.
Issues of supply.
d. All of the above. 6. Which of the following is a long channel? a. Wholesaler-retailer-consumer.
b. Producer-retailer-consumer. c.
d. Direct to the consumer.
7. Organizational goods often involve close technical and commercial dialog between buyer and seller. The type and frequency of purchase and the quantity purchased, affect the channel structure. Which of the following is not one of these organizational distribution channels?
a. Manufacturer-user. b. Manufacturer-agent-user. c.
8. Logistics manages the flow of inputs from suppliers, the movement of materials through different operations within the organization, and the flow of materials out to customers (a) True
9. Manufacturer-user. This direct channel is most appropriate where the goods being sold have which of the following characteristics? a. Low unit cost. b. Geographically dispersed buyers. c.
Low technical content.
d. High unit cost.
10. A wholesaler collects goods from manufacturers or producers in large quantities. (a) True
11. Some intermediaries add logistical value in various forms. Which of the following is not an example of logistical value? a. Differentiating. b. Breaking of bulk packs so as to sell smaller quantities.
12. When choosing the channel structure, which of the following should be considered in making one's choice of channel decision? a. Quantity of product to be sold. b. Market coverage. c.
d. All of the above.
13. In achieving this market coverage effectively and efficiently, there are three alternative models of distribution intensity. Which of the following are they? a. Intensive; exclusive; selective. b. Penetrating; exclusive; selective. c.
Inclusive; exclusive; selective.
d. Penetrating; inclusive; exclusive.
14. Selective distribution is usually associated with which type of goods? a. Shopping goods. b. Industrial goods. c.
d. Organizational goods.
15. There are many influences on channel strategy. Which of the following are examples of these influences?
a. Buying complexity and behavior. b. The product. c.
d. All of the above.
16. Which of the three types of Vertical Marketing System is the most prevalent form? a. Administered. b. Contractual. c.
17. A marketing channel can be defined as which of the following? a. The flow of materials from one point to another. b. The structure linking a group of individuals or organizations. c.
An advertising campaign to reach customers.
d. The distribution of products to Europe from Africa.
18. Which of the following is known as a short-channel? a. Wholesaler-retailer-consumer. b. Producer-retailer-consumer. c.
d. Direct to the consumer.
19. A marketing channel system is the particular set of .................. employed by a firm. Decisions about the marketing channel system are among the most critical facing a firm. a. marketing channels b. distribution/warehouse channels c. finance channels d. management channels
20. A marketing channel performs the work of moving goods from producers to consumers. It overcomes the time, place, and ………………. gaps that separate goods and services from those who need or want them. a. possession b. retail c. consumers d. policies
Answers for Self Assessment Questions 1. (b) 2.(a) 3.(c) 6. (c) 7.(c) 8.(a) 11. (a) 12.(d) 13.(a) 16. (b) 17.(b) 18.(b)
4.(a) 9.(d) 14.(a) 19.(a)
5.(d) 10.(a) 15.(d) 20.(a)
Chapter-5: Consumer Behavior
Self Assessment Questions 1. Consumer Behavior may be defined as………….. a) the interplay of forces that takes place during a consumption process, within a consumers’ self and his environment. b) decision process and physical activity during consumption process. c) A study that analyzes the stages of evaluating, acquiring, using and disposing of goods and services d) All of the above. 2. Consumer behavior focuses specifically on the…… a) Initiator b) User c) Buyer d) Decider 3. Buying Behavior is the decision processes and acts of people involved in buying and using products. (a) True
4. …………………… is never simple, yet understanding it is the essential task of marketing management. a. Consumer buying behavior b. Consumption pioneering c.
d. Brand personality
5. Culture refers to values, ideas, attitudes and other meaningful symbols created by people to shape human behaviors. (a) True
6. In the model of buyer behavior, which of the following is not a major type of force or event in the buyer's environment? a. cultural b. technological c.
7. Culture is the combination of customs, beliefs and values of consumers in a particular nation. (a) True
8. Family is one of the ________ factors that influence consumer behavior. a. business b. personal c.
9. Perception: It is the process of acquiring, interpreting, selecting and organizing sensory information. (a) True
10. A buyer's decisions are influenced by ________ such as the buyer's age and life-cycle stage, occupation, economic situation, lifestyle, and personality and self-concept. a. habitual buying behavior b. personal characteristics c.
variety-seeking buying behavior
d. reference groups
11. Consumer psychology is a specialty area that studies how thoughts, beliefs, feelings and perceptions influence how people buy and relate to goods and services.
12. A ……………. is a need that is sufficiently pressing to direct a person to seek satisfaction. a. motive b. culture c.
13. Customer delivered value can be determined through a combination of total customer value and total customer cost. (a) True
14. ………………. describes changes in an individual's behavior arising from experience. a. Lifestyle b. Perception c.
15. Product value is the value of products offered by company to customers. (a) True
16. The buying process starts with ________, in which the buyer recognizes a problem or need. a. information search b. need recognition c.
d. evaluation of alternative
17. Which of the following is not included in the decision-making unit of a buying organization?
a. individuals who make the buying decision b. individuals who control buying information c.
individuals who supply the product
d. individuals who influence the buying decision
18. Many marketers use the self-concept premise that people's possessions contribute to and reflect their identities; that is, "we are what we have." Under this premise, consumers ________. a. are attracted to products that fit in with their existing attitudes b. use brand personalities c.
buy products to support their self-images
d. conduct the information search
19. What can we say about the size of the business market compared to consumer markets? a. It is approximately the same. b. It is smaller. c.
It is somewhat larger.
d. It is huge.
__________________ is the process of evaluating each market segment's attractiveness and selecting one or more segments to enter.
Answers for Self Assessment Questions 1. (d) 2.(c) 3.(a) 6. (c) 7.(a) 8.(c) 11. (a) 12.(a) 13.(a) 16. (b) 17.(c) 18.(c)
4.(a) 9.(a) 14.(d) 19.(d)
5.(a) 10.(b) 15.(a) 20.(c)
Chapter-6: Fundamentals of Product Management Self Assessment Questions 1. The core product is best defined as: (a)The fundamental benefit of the product (b)The secondary product (c)The tangible product (d)The augmented product 2. Product is a good, service; person, place, events or organizations offered to consumers to satisfy his need or want. (a) good (b) service (c) person (d)All of above
3. An important reason for categorizing products is: (a)To learn from the marketing of another product which appears to be different in form, but is similar in terms of the needs it fulfils. (b)To prioritise the messages that could be given to customers. (c)To identify the attributes which lead to brand loyalty. (d)To simplify a complex matrix of attributes in to a two dimensional model that can be interpreted by all product stakeholders.
4. New product idea can be generated either from the internal sources or external sources. (a) True
5. . Consumer goods are defined as: (a)Relatively cheap products purchased on a regular basis. (b)Products purchased to satisfy individual or household needs. (c)The combination of shopping and speciality goods. (d)All items purchased by an individual excluding those that an individual is legally required to purchase e.g. car insurance.
6. Business analysis: it is the analysis of sales, costs and profit estimated for a new product to find out whether these align with company mission and objectives. (a) True
7. What does the acronym FMCG refer to? (a)Functional, mid-priced, or compulsory goods (b)Famous manufacturer's clothing goods (i.e. designer labels) (c)Fast moving consumer goods (d)Frequent market, consumption goods
8. Strategy recognizes that marketing to a homogenous customer group may not be that effective a strategy for the product the business is selling. (a) True
9. Which of the following is the best example of a measure of technical quality? (a)The image of a restaurant (b)Customer perceptions of a restaurant's waiters (c)Customer perceptions of a restaurant's food (d)Length of waiting time for a restaurant table
10. Brand equity is not set of assets linked to a brand’s name and symbol that adds to the value provided by the product or a service to a firm and/or that firm’s customer. (a) True
11. Five stages in the product life cycle can be identified. Which of the following is NOT a generally accepted stage? (a)Introduction (b)Peak (c)Growth (d)Maturity
12. A product that is perceived as being of average quality by one person may be perceived as being of high quality by someone with:
(a)Higher expectations (b)Rising expectations (c)Falling expectations (d)Lower expectations 13. Double Positioning is a scenario in which customers do not accept the claims of a brand. (a) True
14. At what stage in the product lifecycle does the sales growth start to slow down? (a)Growth stage (b)Maturity stage (c)Saturation stage (d)Decline stage
15. Under positioning is not a scenario in which the customer’s have a blurred and unclear idea of the brand. (a) True
16. What description is often given to groups of consumers who like to be seen owning something new and who are therefore prepared to purchase a product while it is still expensive? (a)Innovators (b)Early adopters (c)Early majority (d)Laggards 17. Brand manager have four options of sponsoring the brand. They are………. a. b. c. d.
Manufacturer brand Private brand Licensing All of above
18. Which growth strategy focuses on developing new products for a company's existing markets? (a)Market penetration (b)Market development (c)Product development (d)Diversification 19. Brand Positioning is the key of marketing strategy. (a) True
20. Price determination is very important aspect of strategic planning. (a) True
Answers for Self Assessment Questions 1. (a) 2.(d) 3.(a) 6. (a) 7.(c) 8.(a) 11. (b) 12.(d) 13.(a) 16. (a) 17.(d) 18.(c)
4.(a) 9.(d) 14.(b) 19.(a)
5.(b) 10.(b) 15.(b) 20.(a)
Chapter-7: Promotion Self Assessment Questions
1. A strategy which aims to produce a perfect product which will suit everybody is called: a. marketing orientation. b. product orientation. c. production orientation. d. perfection orientation. 2. A strategy which aims to produce the maximum amount of goods at the lowest possible price is called: a. production orientation. b. cost orientation. c. societal marketing. d. selling orientation. 3. Someone who has responsibility for marketing decisions concerning a group of products is: a. b. c. d.
a brand manager. a marketing manager a product manager. a sales manager.
4. Which of the following is true? a. Value is always lower than price. b. Price is always lower than value. c. Value is what consumers are prepared to pay. d. Cost is always lower than price. 5. The marketing concept should be central to business strategy because: a. companies have a moral responsibility to care for their customers. b. business strategy is aimed at customers. c. customers will only spend money with firms that look after their needs. d. marketing enables firms to persuade their customers to buy things they do not really need. 6. Demand is created when: a. a need is identified. b. a significant group of people want to buy something. c. people who can afford something want to buy it. d. marketers persuade people to want something. 7. Production orientation is about creating the ideal product. a. True b. False 8. Marketing is the process of managing exchange.
a. True b. False 9. Sales orientation is the view that customers will not ordinarily buy enough of the firm's products unless there is an aggressive sales campaign. a. True b. False 10. The marketing mix consists of product, price, place, promotion, people, process and payment. a. True b. False 11. Customer centrality means providing everything the customer needs and wants. a. True b. False 12. A brand manager is responsible for all the decisions relating to a specific brand. a. True b. False 13. Publics are organizations or individuals that have actual or potential influence on the company's sales. a. True b. False 14. Relationship marketing focuses on the lifetime value of the customer. a. True b. False 15. Societal marketing is about the needs of society as a whole. a. True b. False 16. The paradigm that leads to more complex products at ever-increasing prices is _______. a. sales orientation b. marketing orientation c. production orientation d. product orientation 17. Someone who is responsible for finding out what individual customers need, and explaining how the firm's products meet those needs, is a _________. a. brand manager b. sales manager c. market research manager d. salesperson 18. Someone who controls media purchases and deals with advertising agencies is ___________. a. a public relations manager b. a brand manager
c. an advertising manager d. a sales manager 19. A specific satisfier for a need is called a _____. a. demand b. market c. want d. product 20. The philosophy that the customer should be at the centre of everything the company does is called _______. a. b. c. d.
marketing orientation sales orientation product orientation production orientation
Answers for Self Assessment Questions 1. (c) 2.(a) 3.(c) 6. (c) 7.(b) 8.(a) 11. (b) 12.(a) 13.(b) 16. (d) 17.(d) 18.(c)
4.(c) 9.(a) 14.(a) 19.(c)
5.(c) 10.(b) 15.(a) 20.(a)
Chapter-8: E-Marketing Self Assessment Questions 1. What does the following definition refer to? ‘Achieving marketing objectives through the use of any electronic communications technology’ a. Internet marketing b. E-business c.
d. None of the above 2 .Using the Internet for marketing research to find out customers needs and wants is an example of: a. identifying customer requirements b. satisfying customer requirements c.
anticipating customer requirements
d. none of the above
3 .Delivering e-mail based customer support is an example of: a. anticipating customer requirements b. identifying customer requirements c.
satisfying customer requirements
d. none of the above 4 .What is the focus of marketing orientation? a. Customers b. Suppliers c.
d. Employees 5 .E-marketing is best seen as: a. the same as e-commerce b. equivalent to e-business c.
broader than e-business
d. a subset of e-business
6. Market is basically your current consumers and your potential clients in certain area. (a) True
7 .The e–marketing plan has: a. the same objectives as the marketing plan b. the same objectives as the e-business plan c.
the same objectives as the corporate plan
d. objectives which support the objectives of other organizational plans 8 .Which is not one of the elements of a company’s external micro-environment that need to be assessed during situation analysis for e-marketing? a. Intermediary analysis b. Competitor analysis c.
d. Supplier analysis 9. Assessing the demand for digital services (the online revenue contribution) is an example of: a. satisfying customer requirements. b. identifying customer requirements. c.
anticipating customer requirements.
d. none of the above. 10. Internet is very important tool in marketing. (a) True
11. The direct online contribution effectiveness refers to: a. the reach of audience volume of a site. b. the proportion of sales influenced by the website. c.
the proportion of business turnover achieved by e-commerce transactions.
d. both the first and third answers above. 12. Which is NOT one of the elements of a company's external micro-environment that need to be assessed during situation analysis for e-marketing? a. Intermediary analysis. b. Competitor analysis. c.
d. Supplier analysis. 13. E-commerce was stunted by security fears, but improved technology has made millions of people worldwide feel comfortable buying online. (a) True
14. A challenge of managing the online marketing mix that most closely relates to the satisfying behavior when selecting products is: a. Product. b. Place. c.
d. Price. 15. A challenge of managing the online marketing mix that most closely relates to endorsement, awards and accreditation is: a. Promotion. b. Price. c.
d. Product. 16. The main outcome that is required from the owner of a site offering laser eye treatment. a. Connect audience with relevant content. b. Increase engagement with audience. c.
Achieve a sale.
d. Generate potential sales leads which are likely to be converted offline. 17. Internet Marketing is actually a mixture of values, along with the successful and useful allotment of content. (a) True
18. E-pricing can also easily reward loyal customers. (a) True
19. Marketing is the management process responsible for ____________, anticipating and satisfying customer requirements profitably.
a. supplying b. researching c.
d. identifying 20. The _______________ customer concern from the 4Cs is equivalent to the Price element of the marketing mix. a. cost b. communications techniques c.
d. needs and wants
Answers for Self Assessment Questions 1. (c) 2.(a) 3.(a) 6. (a) 7.(d) 8.(d) 11. (c) 12.(d) 13.(a) 16. (d) 17.(a) 18.(a)
4.(a) 9.(c) 14.(d) 19.(d)
5.(d) 10.(a) 15.(d) 20.(a)
Chapter-9- Market Evaluation and Controls Self Assessment Questions
1. Business ethics are basically different from personal ethics. a. True b. False
2 .Utilitarianism suggests that it is ethical to make decisions based on: a. Moral virtues b. Common decency c.
What is best for most people
d. None of these
3. Marketing’s principal function is to promote and facilitate exchange. (a) True
4. Marketing is not confined to any particular type of economy, because goods must be exchanged and therefore marketed in all economies and societies except perhaps in the most primitive. (a) True
5. Marketing audit is, in some respects, the raw material for the strategic control. (a) True
6 . Which of the following are not major schools of thought: a. Roles b. Consequences c.
d. None of these
7 . Ethical behavior is not in the long-term interest of businesses. a. True b. False
8 . Distributive justice refers to: a. Rewards allocated to those who shout loudest b. Rewards allocated by level of contribution c.
Rewards allocated to those who cannot help themselves
d. Rewards allocated regardless of contribution
9. Resources are not scarce and costly so it is important to control marketing plans. (a) True
10. Market Environment is……….. a. Total market size growth and trends b. Market characteristics, growth and trends c.
d. All of above
11. Marketing ethics is the systematic study of how moral standards are applied to marketing decisions, behaviors, and institutions. (a) True
12. Marketing communications activities can be deemed 'ethically neutral', meaning that they depend on: a. Available finance b. Stated business aims c.
d. How they are carried out
13. Ethical business practice requires, above all else, an active awareness and consideration of the likely long-term consequence of any action. a. True b. False
14. Research suggests that marketing communications designed to shock are: a. Probably the least effective b. Always the most effective c.
d. None of these
15 . The business / organizational framework have no influence on ethical behavior. a. True b. False
16 . Research suggests that unethical behavior is viewed most seriously by stakeholders if: a. It has a long-term, negative impact on organizational effectiveness b. Unfavourable reports appear in the media c.
Some customers are upset
d. A standards agency criticises the organization
17 . Ethical behavior is a matter of: a. Obeying the rules b. Acting on a considered judgement c.
Juggling standards and business needs
d. None of these
18. Research shows that a majority of marketers: a. Believe that ethics and social responsibility are important b. Do not care about ethics and social responsibility c.
Pretend that ethics and social responsibility are important
d. None of these 19. Markets are broken into segments in which people share some similar characteristics. (a) True
20. Marketing practices are deceptive if customers believe they will get more value from a product or service than they actually receive. b) (a) True
Answers for Self Assessment Questions 1. (b) 2.(c) 3.(a) 6. (a) 7.(b) 8.(b) 11. (a) 12.(d) 13.(a) 16. (a) 17.(b) 18.(c)
4.(a) 9.(a) 14.(c) 19.(a)
5.(a) 10.(d) 15.(b) 20.(a)
Chapter-10- Marketing Research Self Assessment Questions 1. Effective presentations require: (a)Good presentation skills and especially the ability to present material dramatically (b)A pleasant smile, good eye contact, suitable clothes and a well-modulated voice. (c)Planning, practice and presentation skills (d)Planning, a logical order of presentation and asking the class lots of questions. 2. What are the features of an introduction for a presentation? (a)The use of questions, quotations, statistics or humor as a means of gaining audience involvement (b)Statement of purpose, background, overview or outline of the argument, and the gaining of audience interest (c)There are two features: using a question as a means of gaining audience involvement right from the start, and providing a summary of the argument within the presentation. (d)Statement of purpose, background, and overview or outline of the argument in the presentation 3. Audience engagement is used: (a)To help the audience to understand the information. (b)So that the audience may be part of the experience. (c)To show the assessor how good you are at giving presentations. (d)To keep the audience awake during the presentation 4. What is important to consider when asking questions in a presentation? (a)Cultural differences are important, as direct questions may be offensive to some class members. (b)It is important to consider how you can answer the question fully as a means of showing the lecturer your depth of knowledge on the topic. (c)It is important to consider the use of a rhetorical question as it allows the audience the opportunity to provide a specific answer.
(d)All of these. 5. What type of written format should be taken into the presentation? (a)A formal essay (b)Note form using short simple sentences or bullet points (c)A 'scripted' form to be read aloud (d)Do not take in anything at all as it is an oral presentation 6. Which of the following should NOT be done in a team or group presentation? (a)Referring to your team members by name (b)Planning so the whole presentation is consistent and complete (c)Using 'I' when presenting ideas and information in your own section of the presentation (d)Using 'we' when presenting the ideas and information in your own section of the presentation 7. How should you practice your oral presentation? (a)While practicing, use as many of your senses as possible. (b)Always record your presentation so that you can listen to it over and over again. (c)Memorise it word for word. (d)Always have someone to listen to it so that they may give you feedback. 8. What 'body' aspect of the presentation is the most important to consider? (a)The whole body (b)The voice (c)The eyes (d)Gestures 9. Good posture is the most important type of body language for a speaker giving a presentation. (a)True (b)False (c)No Information
10. A presentation is a form of oral communication in which a person shares factual information with an audience that is: (a)mixed (b)small (c)specific (d)large 11. The presenter acts as the: (a)advocate of the information (b)supporter of the information (c)medium of the information (d)deliverer of the information 12. The three major elements of presentation do not include: (a)visual aids (b)an audience (c)specific content (d)a presenter 13. The audience for a presentation consists of people who: (a)are uninformed and lack a purpose (b)are confused in their purpose (c)are uniform in their level of information and purpose (d)vary in their level of information and purpose 14. To be able to give a good presentation, a full rehearsal is: (a)audience based (b)useless (c)necessary
(d)optional 15. Reading out a presentation is: (a)not allowed (b)helpful (c)dull (d)allowed 16. To make a presentation effective and impressive, you should use: (a)passive sentences (b)a simple and active form of sentences (c)complex sentences (d)jargon 17. To select the content of your presentation, you should know: (a)your purpose (b)the audience’s needs (c)the available material (d)the time limit 18. In presentation design, maximum time is given to the: (a)question–answer session (b)introduction (c)main body (d)conclusion 19. Initially, a presentation is a form of: (a)one-way communication (b)intrapersonal communication (c)group communication
(d)two-way communication 20. Nonverbal communication is best described as: (a)the facial expressions and tone of voice used while speaking. (b)the part of the message not encoded in words. (c)body language (d)noe of these
Answers for Self Assessment Questions 1. (c)