Chapter-1 Communication Self Assessment Questions 1. Impersonal communication occurs when we a. practice other-centered communication. b. interact spontaneously with other people. c.
treat people as objects.
d. practice ethnocentrism. 2. During interpersonal communication a. another person affects you. b. you and another person affect each other. c.
you and another person affect a third person.
d. you affect another person. 3. Unlike your relationship with a spouse or boyfriend/girlfriend, your relationship with family members constitutes a relationship of a. circumstance. b. complexity. c.
emotion.
d. choice. 4. The matching hypothesis assumes that a. average looking people will gravitate to average looking people. b. attractive people will gravitate to not so attractive people. c.
not so attractive people will gravitate to average looking people.
d. not so attractive people will gravitate to attractive people. 5. Uncertainty reduction theory is most useful in studying how people reduce uncertainty about people we a. know intimately. b. don't know well. c.
don't care about.
d. know fairly well. 6. The looking glass self is
a. a "phony" self we use to mask the true self. b. the self we see when we look in a mirror. c.
the self described in the developmental view.
d. the self we infer from the appraisals of others. 7. When we pay attention to how someone interacts with another person, we are practicing which strategy of uncertainty reduction? a. Active b. Interactive c.
Multiactive
d. Passive 8. Reciprocity in self-disclosure means that a. we share information unintentionally. b. we share information and expect to receive it in return. c.
we share information slowly.
d. we fail to share information. 9. Which is the best way to solve a problem that arises in an important, long-term relationship? a. accommodation b. forcing c.
compromise
d. problem-solving 10. In the Johari Window model of self-disclosure, the unknown quadrant _______ as you learn and self-disclose. a. shrinks b. grows c.
is unaffected
d. fluctuates 11. Seeing someone we know on the sidewalk and saying "hello" is best described as an act of a. intrapersonal communication. b. opening a conversation. c.
altercasting.
d. phatic communication. 12. Communication in which one person speaks and the other person listens is
a. monologic. b. dialogic. c.
implicit.
d. empathic. 13. Which of the following is NOT one of the things online impressions are based on? a. Language use b. Nonverbal cues c.
Personal markers
d. Paralinguistic cues 14. Which of the following is NOT a way to increase mindfulness? a. Beware of relying too heavily on first impressions b. Create and recreate categories c.
Realize that no two situations or people are exactly alike
d. Be open to new information and points of view 15. Asking the meaning of a statement is an example of a. metacommunication. b. rejection. c.
insensitivity.
d. verbal aggressiveness. 16. The voluntary revealing of information that would normally be unobtainable is called a. self-disclosure. b. autonomy-togetherness. c.
disconfirmation.
d. social comparison. 17. Backchannelling cues are used to fulfill the conversational step of a. business. b. feedback. c.
opening.
d. closing. 18. Keeping a conversation flowing and fluent (with few interruptions and awkward pauses) demonstrates the conversational skill of a. interaction management.
b. positivity. c.
expressiveness.
d. other-orientation. 19. Which of the following is a good rule to follow in deciding whether or not to self-disclose? a. Relate disclosures to the "here and now." b. Start out with your most intimate disclosures first. c.
Be as spontaneous as possible; disclose whenever and wherever you feel the need.
d. Disclose to as many people as possible so you can get different viewpoints. 20. A content message is a. usually sent nonverbally through tone of voice. b. usually sent unintentionally. c.
an obvious message consisting of words or language.
d. an obviously sarcastic message.
Answers of Self Assessment Questions 1. (c)
2.(b)
3.(a)
4.(a)
5.(b)
6.(d)
7.(d)
8.(b)
9.(d)
10.(a)
11(b)
12.(a)
13.(b)
14.(c)
15.(a)
16.(a)
17.(b)
18.(a)
19.(a)
20.(c)
Chapter-2 Promotion Mix Self Assessment Questions 1 .Sales promotions are primarily used to increase sales levels in the:
a. Long term b. Medium term c.
Short term
d. None of these 2 .Sales promotions are designed to offer buyers an inducement to buy now. a. True b. False 3 .The effect of promotional spending is harder to quantify than effects of adspend. a. True b. False 4 .Sales promotion is a promotional tool regarded as: a. Above-the-line b. Below-the-line c.
Through-the-line
d. Nowhere-near-the-line 5 .The credibility of a sales promotion event is usually: a. Low b. Of no consequence c.
Medium
d. High 6 .Of the following choices, which is not a reason to use sales promotion? a. To reward behaviour b. To reach new customers c.
To assist integration
d. To develop brand image 7 .Which of the following is NOT considered to be an objective associated with the use of sales promotions? a. Change buyer attitudes b. Prompt buyers into trial purchase c.
Increase volume of individual purchases
d. None of these
8 .Sales promotions are thought to make consumer purchase decisions: a. More satisfying b. Less satisfying c.
Simpler
d. More complex 9 .Where there is high involvement, sales promotions for new products are: a. Ineffective b. Effective c.
Both a & b
d. None of these 10 .If there is low involvement and the product/market is established then sales promotions should be used: a. For loyals to reward and increase usage b. For loyals to increase loyalty c.
For all to block out the competition
d. For loyals to encourage trial 11 .Sales promotions work through a. Successive inclinations b. Successive approximations c.
Successive indications
d. Successive examinations 12 .Levels of customer loyalty can be determined by attitudinal surveys. a. True b. False 13 .Which of the following is NOT regarded as a type of loyalty? a. Price b. Incentivised c.
Emotional
d. Oligopolistic
14 .The costs associated with sales promotions are normally:
a. High b. Low c.
Extortionate
d. Medium 15 .Sales promotions can encourage people to purchase outside their usual repertoire. a. True b. False 16 .Research suggests that the costs of sales promotions: a. Are easily recouped b. Outweigh any benefits c.
Are enormous
d. Are negligible 17 .TPR stands for: a. Temporary Price Reduction b. Top Promotional Return c.
The Promotion Rate
d. None of these 18 .The destructive effect of sales promotion means that sales are likely, in the long run, to: a. Remain constant b. Rise c.
Fall
d. None of these 19 .The process by which sales promotions are gradually phased out is known as: a. Phasing b. Waning c.
Fading
d. Abating 20 .The sales promotion ‘trap’ results from: a. Competitive promotions b. Consumer indifference c.
Stock outs
d. None of these
Answers of Self Assessment Questions 1. (c)
2.(a)
3.(b)
4.(b)
5.(a)
6.(d)
7.(a)
8.(c)
9.(a)
10.(a)
11(b)
12.(b)
13.(d)
14.(a)
15.(b)
16.(b)
17.(a)
18.(c)
19.(c)
20.(a)
Chapter-3 Advertising Self Assessment Questions 1. The first printed advertisements were single sheets, printed on one side, that today would be called a. brochures. b. flights. c.
barrages.
d. fliers. 2. Which of the following is NOT an area of responsibility for people who work in an advertising agency? a. buying b. creativity c.
research
d. printing 3. Advertisements supply consumers with essential information about products and services, including a. how much the product or service costs. b. where to get the product or service. c.
all of these.
d. the existence of the product or service.
4. Advertising agencies were first developed for, and still serve, the purpose of a. increasing the amount of research and decision-making clients need to do. b. pushing clients to make rapid decisions. c.
simplifying and speeding the purchasing of ads for their clients.
d. mystifying ad purchasing so that clients do not attempt it on their own. 5. Advertising directly to consumers in newspapers was first popularized by a. the news "criers" of ancient Greece and Rome. b. the ads for other religious books that appeared in Gutenberg's Bibles. c.
the "penny papers" of the 1800s.
d. USA Today. 6. Infomercials often resemble other types of television shows, including a. talk shows. b. news shows. c.
live, audience-participation shows.
d. all of these. 7. Dakota is a graphic designer working for an advertising agency to develop print advertisements. Dakota provides which type of service? a. creative b. all of these c.
research
d. buying 8. Brand names and identity advertising are methods that advertisers use to encourage consumers to a. perceive hidden messages. b. reach their demographic potential. c.
satisfy subconscious motivations.
d. make distinctions among products that are actually very similar. 9. Violations that ethical advertisers strive to avoid include which of the following? a. false statements b. misleading and exaggerated claims c.
testimonials from unknowledgeable people
d. all of these 10. The medium on which U.S. advertisers spend the most money each year is
a. magazines. b. television. c.
radio.
d. newspapers. 11. An advantage of television ads over print and radio ads is the ability of television to a. linger in consumers' possession for in-depth and repeated reference. b. let consumers hear a product and see it in action. c.
provide advertisers carefully targeted audiences of as few as a single person.
d. do all of these. 12. Devon works in the marketing department for a large company, determining the most effective media for the company to advertise in and assisting in the purchase of space or time for ads. Devon's job is a. account executive. b. creative direction. c.
media planning.
d. graphic design. 13. Advertisers divide the population into different market segments or target audiences based on a. geographic location. b. lifestyle or psychological characteristics. c.
demographics, such as age or sex.
d. all of these. 14. The Ad Council is a. the name for the daily meetings held by small groups of top executives at most large advertising agencies. b. a self-policing organization funded by the advertising industry to punish unethical advertisers. c.
the organization sponsored by the advertising industry to create ads for worthy causes.
d. a new U.S. government organization formed to regulate advertising on the Internet. 15. Advertising can be used to sell a. products. b. services. c.
ideas.
d. all of these. 16. An economy that relies on purchases of goods and services, and on advertising to create a climate that encourages those purchases has been termed a a. brand-name nation. b. consumer culture. c.
mediaocracy.
d. selling society. 17. Guinn works for an advertising agency, studying the buying habits of consumers of different ages and in different locations, and inviting consumers in to discuss their media and purchasing habits. Guinn is providing which of the following areas of service for the agency's clients? a. media buying b. research c.
creative
d. all of these 18. Advertisers can reach audiences in target geographical areas by a. buying time on local radio stations. b. advertising in local newspapers. c.
placing ads in regional issues of national magazines.
d. doing all of these. 19. Products and services that have raised ethical concerns for advertisers and reputable media in recent years include a. fortune tellers. b. weight loss systems. c.
cigarettes.
d. all of these. 20. Psychological research has revealed which of the following to advertisers? a. Advertisers should match media to the level of rational thought people put into particular buying decisions. b. Our emotions and desires can be linked to products to drive sales. c.
People's lifestyle choices affect their buying habits.
d. All of these.
Answers of Self Assessment Questions 1. (d)
2.(d)
3.(c)
4.(c)
5.(c)
6.(d)
7.(a)
8.(d)
9.(d)
10.(b)
11(b)
12.(c)
13.(d)
14.(c)
15.(d)
16.(b)
17.(b)
18.(d)
19.(d)
20.(d)
Chapter-4 Advertising Agency Management Self Assessment Questions 1. The ad for Cargill Incorporated does not describe a specific product the company products, but rather describes how the company is helping consumers reduce their cholesterol. This ad is an example of _____ advertising. a. institutional b. interactive c.
organizational
d. product 2. Assume the Ralph Lauren Home Collection sends a ready-made advertisement to a regional magazine published in Alabama, and the magazine publisher inserts the name, address, and phone number of a local department store chain that carries the bed linens, glassware, and dinnerware. Ralph Lauren pays 75 percent of the cost of running the ad. The department store pays the other 25 percent. This is an example of: a. cooperative advertising b. horizontal advertising c.
administered vertical advertising
d. a franchise promotion
3. Piggly-Wiggly is a supermarket chain that is only found in the southeastern United States. You would expect the supermarket to use _____ advertising if it were trying to convince Southerners its prices were lowest. a.
geographic
b.
local
c.
national
d.
regional
4. Which of the following is an example of a guideline that should be followed by someone who wants to engage in successful local advertising? a. Use a complex layout to draw attention to the ad. b. Avoid naming any particular brands in the ads to keep from drawing attention away from the store being advertised. c.
Remove all white space from the ad.
d. None of the above statements are guidelines that should be followed by someone who wants to engage in successful local advertisings. 5. Until recently, L'Oreal, the French cosmetics manufacturer, has used uniform international advertising campaigns that were all controlled by the company's advertising department in France. The company's concern with cost efficiency and continuity in their communications programs indicate that L'Oreal used a _____ organization. a. functional b. decentralized c.
transnational
d. centralized 6. S2 is an advertising agency in Mexico City to represent a wide-range of accounts. It distinguishes itself from other agencies because it depicts real Mexicans enjoying everyday life. All other agencies in Mexico show idealized Mexicans in their ads enjoying a fantasy lifestyle. From this information, you can surmise that S2 is a _____ agency. a. business-to-business b. business-to-consumer c.
general consumer
d. high-tech
7. Relationship marketing is defined in most marketing texts as the creation of customer loyalty through the establishment of a long-term win-win relationship between buyer and seller. Which of the following terms most closely relates to relationship marketing? a.
horizontal co-operative advertising
b.
account planning
c.
vertical co-operative advertising
d.
integrated marketing communications
8. The words in the ad explained why Nexus salon hair care products provide the best possible treatments for your hair. These words are called the ad's: a. copy b. media c.
layout
d. coding
9. A small Wisconsin agency wants to buy a quarter-page ad in Golf Digest magazine for a travel agency that specializes in preparing all-inclusive, hassle-free golf travel packages, the ad would cost $300. How much money would the agency send the publication to pay for the ad? a. $255 b. $285 c.
$300
d. $315 10. CDMann Agency has designed a half-page newspaper ad for a new restaurant. It hired Lambert Photography to provide photos of the restaurant's exterior and interior to be used in the ad. The invoice from Lambert to CDMann was for $350. If CDMann uses the traditional markup, how much did the agency bill the restaurant for the photographs? a. $47.70 b. $288.26 c.
$352.50
d. $411.78 11. In the _____ method, advertising agencies charge clients for all their services and credit any media commissions earned to the client. a. variable budget b. retainer
c.
variable apportionment of overhead costs
d. slotting allowance
12. Goldwin Golf has developed a golf club that has a wider shaft and is 40 grams lighter than other clubs currently on the market. It has hired Lowell Agency to develop an advertising campaign for this new club. Goldwin has offered to pay the agency 3 percent of its profits if it sells more than 30,000 clubs during its first full year of production. This bonus is an example of a(n): a. incentive system b. entrepreneurial allowance c.
production-oriented plan
d. retainer system 13. A speculative presentation: a. is the method used to ensure the media commission is the full 15 percent b. refers to the trend of charging for agency services that were once free c.
is a ways for an agency to demonstrate its capabilities to a prospect
d. is a generic presentation that can be used by local advertisers in different geographical regions
14. The many factors that affect the client-agency relationship can best be grouped into the following categories: a. chemistry, conduct, communication, and changes b. planning, motivating, organizing, and controlling c.
market, media, motivation, and message
d. price, product, placement, and presentation
15. What is the name for an organization that creates Web pages for advertising purposes? a. Web design house b. HTML specialists c.
creative boutiques
d. art studio 16. Which of the following is a category of advertising media?
a. print b. digital interactive c.
direct mail
d. all of the above
17. Which of the following is described by the text as a current trend in advertising? a. bilingual capabilities b. the slow death of the commission system c.
an increase in retainer fees
d. agency consolidation along national boundaries
18. In advertising agencies, copywriters would be a part of: a. media department b. creative services c.
research department
d. traffic department 19. Which of the following statements about how advertising agencies are compensated for their services is true? a. The traditional method of compensating agencies is the payment of a flat-rate plus a percentage of sales. b. Agencies receive a 20 percent commission from each client. c.
The commission paid to agencies is the same no matter what media is used.
d. None of the above statements about how advertising agencies are compensated for their services is true. 20. The advertising agency's evaluation process involves two types of assessments. They are the financial audit and the: a. qualitative audit b. social audit c.
quantitative audit
d. creative assessment
Answers of Self Assessment Questions 1. (a)
2.(a)
3.(d)
4.(d)
5.(d)
6.(c)
7.(b)
8.(a)
9.(a)
10.(d)
11(b)
12.(a)
13.(c)
14.(a)
15.(a)
16.(d)
17.(b)
18.(b)
19.(d)
20.(c)
Chapter-5 Advertising Campaign Self Assessment Questions 1. Which of the following is not a component of the current market situation analysis? a. Mission and vision b. Competitive situation c.
Product situation
d. Distribution situation 2 .In order to carry out a SWOT analysis, a company must _________ a. Identify the main threats in the external environment b. Identify the main opportunities in the external environment c.
Identify the company's main internal weaknesses
d. All of the above 3 .Which of the following indicates how a marketing plan will be monitored? a. Objectives b. Action programs c.
Controls
d. Marketing strategy
4. A company where a specialist such as a marketing research manager heads each marketing activity is using a/an ____________ form of organisation. a. Functional b. Geographic c.
Product management
d. Evolutionary 5. How a firm as a whole will adapt to take advantage of opportunities in changing environments is outlined in its ___________ a. Strategic plan b. SBU strategy c.
Long-range plan
d. Annual plan 6. Which of the following is not part of a firm's marketing plan? a. Business portfolio strategy b. Projected profit-and-loss statement c.
Issues analysis
d. Objectives 7 .Which of the following factors assists in the successful implementation of marketing plans? a. Formal organisational structure b. Decision and reward systems c.
Company culture
d. All of the above 8 .What does SBU stand for? a. Strategic Business Unit b. Sales Business Unit c.
Strategic Buying Unit
d. Single Business Unit 9. ___________ ____________ is the process that turns marketing strategies into marketing actions in order to accomplish strategic marketing objectives. a. Marketing implementation b. Marketing monitoring c.
Marketing evaluation
d. Marketing control
10 .What are the two types of objectives that must be set in the marketing plan? a. Financial and sales b. Marketing and financial c.
Marketing and sales
d. Company and marketing 11 .Most large firms typically operate at four levels. Which is not one of the levels? [Hint] a. Operational level b. Corporate level c.
Divisional level
d. Business unit level e. Product level 12 .Which part of the marketing plan presents the approach that will be used to meet the plan's objectives? a. Marketing strategy b. Action programs c.
SWOT and issue analysis
d. Current marketing situation e. None of the above 13. The mass media serve to inform, entertain, and bind groups of people together. a. True b. False 14. Young adults are the audience group that consumes the least media in the U.S. today.
a. True b. False 15. Johannes Gutenberg's invention of movable metal type allowed him to die a wealthy man, the founder of the first mass-media conglomerate empire. a. True b. False 16. Every historical era has had new media. a. True
b. False 17. Advertising rates in a particular medium are generally tied to the number of potential customers that can be delivered by that medium. a. True b. False 18. Media conglomeration has resulted in fewer and fewer media outlets and higher profit margins for parent companies. a. True b. False 19. Mass communicators are unlike other communicators because they cannot see their audiences. a. True b. False 20. The size and diversity of mass audiences have made mass communication's task easier. a. True b. False
Answers of Self Assessment Questions 1. (a)
2.(d)
3.(c)
4.(a)
5.(a)
6.(a)
7.(d)
8.(a)
9.(a)
10.(b)
11(a)
12.(a)
13.(a)
14.(b)
15.(b)
16.(a)
17.(a)
18.(a)
19.(a)
20.(b)
Chapter-6 Budgeting
Self Assessment Questions 1. Which of the following is not a function of budgeting? a. Decision making b. Controlling c.
Planning
d. Motivating 2. The term "budgetary period" relates to: a. The period in which the budget is finalised b. The period for which the budget is prepared c.
The subdivisions of the main budget
d. A specific year for which the budget has been prepared 3. A budget is "accepted" by a manager when they: a. Agree to it verbally b. Are consulted by top management c.
Relate it to their own personal objectives
d. Receive the budget in writing 4. What functional role do management accountants play in the budgeting process? a. They audit the financial statements b. They set targets for other managers c.
They decide what bonuses should be paid to the staff
d. They facilitate and co-ordinate the budgeting process 5. A fixed budget is: a. A budget that never changes b. A budget that itemises the fixed costs of a department c.
A budget that ignores inflation
d. A budget that is set for a specified level of activity 6. A flexible budget is: a. A budget that will be changed at the end of the month in order to reflect the actual costs of a department b. A budget that is constantly being changed c.
A budget that comprises variable costs only
d. A budget that is adjusted to reflect different costs at different activity levels
7. A company has sales in units of 2,600. There are 1,400 units of opening stock while the closing stock is planned to be 1,800 units. What production is needed to satisfy sales? a. 3,000 units b. 2,200 units c.
2,437 units
d. 2,600 units 8. Which of the following will NOT appear in a cash budget? a. Depreciation of machinery b. Machinery bought on hire purchase c.
Wages
d. Sales revenue 9. The budgeted sales for the next four quarters are £192,000, £288,000, £288,000 and £336,000, respectively. It is estimated that sales will be paid for as follows: 75% of the total will be paid in the quarter that the sales were made. Of the balance 50% will be paid in the quarter after the sale was made. The remaining 50% will be paid in the quarter after this. The amount of cash received in quarter 3 will be: a. £144,000 b. £240,000 c.
£324,000
d. £276,000 10. If actual output is lower than budgeted output which of the following costs would you expect to be lower than the original budget? a. Total variable costs b. Total fixed costs c.
Variable costs per unit
d. Fixed costs per unit 11. When a production budget is being prepared the quantity that needs to be produced is calculated by the following equation: a. Opening stock plus quantity sold plus closing stock b. Quantity sold plus closing stock less opening stock c.
Opening stock less quantity sold
d. Opening stock less quantity sold plus closing stock 12. The master budget will comprise:
a. The cash budget, the budgeted profit and loss account and the budgeted balance sheet b. The budgeted profit and loss account and the budgeted balance sheet c.
All the production, selling and cost budgets for the organisation
d. The cash budget 13. It is generally believed that the first step in the formal market segmentation process is to: a. Identify bases for segmenting the market. b. Develop a measure of segment attractiveness. c.
Identify target market segments.
d. Develop segment profiles. 14. The ___________ process is the process of evaluating each market segment's attractiveness and selecting one or more segments to enter. a. Market Targeting b. Market Differentiation c.
Market Segmentation
d. Market Positioning 15 .If a marketer wanted to set a competitive position for a product and follow this with a detailed marketing mix that would be appropriate to that position, the process would be called: a. Market Segmentation. b. Market Positioning. c.
Market Differentiation.
d. Market Targeting. 16 .If a market were to be reduced from a very large market to a very small or customized one, what would be the second step or level of this reduction process? a. Mass Market. b. Segment Marketing. c.
Micromarketing.
d. Niche Marketing. 17 .Which of the following would be a benefit of segment marketing with respect to mass marketing? a. It offers smaller companies the opportunity to compete by focusing on overlooked markets. b. It creates the largest potential market.
c.
It allows a company to conduct local and individualized marketing to attract customers.
d. The company can market more effectively by fine tuning its products, prices, and programs to the needs of carefully defined segments. 18 .If an automobile company through its segmentation process were to focus on specialized subsegments of the SUV market, such as standard SUVs and luxury SUVs, ___________ would be the probable segmentation process being followed. a. Segment Marketing b. Micromarketing c.
Niche Marketing
d. Macromarketing 19 .Local marketing and individual marketing would be examples of which of the following forms of marketing? a. Segment Marketing. b. Micromarketing. c.
Niche Marketing.
d. Dual Marketing. 20 .All of the following would be examples of demographic market segments EXCEPT: a. Education. b. Personality. c.
Generation.
d. Religion.
Answers of Self Assessment Questions 1. (a)
2.(b)
3.(c)
4.(d)
5.(d)
6.(d)
7.(a)
8.(a)
9.(d)
10.(a)
11(b)
12.(a)
13.(a)
14.(a)
15.(b)
16.(b)
17.(d)
18.(c)
19.(b)
20.(b)
Chapter-7 Media Self Assessment Questions 1. Multinational media companies frequently originate from a. acquiring other companies. b. mergers. c.
the opening of foreign branches.
d. all of these 2. Cultural imperialism occurs when a. all of these. b. the values of developed countries are imposed upon developing nations. c.
local indigenous cultures celebrate their own, unique cultural values.
d. countries invite a cultural exchange with other nations. 3. Which of the following countries ranks the highest in number of movie tickets purchased each year and feature-film production? a. France b. the United States c.
India
d. Japan 4. An example of a media outlet that has become a global brand name is a. CNN. b. Reader's Digest. c.
Google.
d. all of these. 5. One of the earliest examples of international mass-media sales was a. book exports and imports. b. the Associated Press. c.
Netscape.
d. the BBC. 6. A key factor that has made rapid increases in media globalization possible is
a. all of these. b. the internet. c.
vigorous attempts at government censorship of imported media.
d. resistance of cultural imperialism in favor of nationalistic segregation. 7. Which of the following news agencies is the biggest? a. Associated Press b. Interfax c.
Reuters
d. Agence France-Presse 8. A network in another nation attempts to adapt a popular American singing-competition show to feature local contestants and judges. Many critics regard this as an example of a. U.S. cultural imperialism. b. desirable international cooperation. c.
cultural resistance.
d. upward cultural transmission. 9. When a nation's TV networks use a lot of U.S. television programming, the productivity and money-making opportunities for the country's own local production companies are a. unchanged. b. helped. c.
hurt.
d. enhanced. 10. Which of the following is an example of transcultural enrichment? a. newspapers in Morocco carry articles from neighboring Tunisia. b. TV stations in Brazil broadcast a popular Colombian telenovela, or soap opera. c.
People in Thailand frequently tune to a radio station originating in nearby Laos.
d. all of these 11. The amount of use of different types of media in a particular country is affected by the country's a. cultural values. b. all of these. c.
climate and geography.
d. economics. 12. The ruler of a country controls all of the radio and television stations in that nation. These stations are examples of
a. government media. b. commercial media. c.
public media.
d. individual media. 13. The U.S. brand name for televised music videos, known around the world, is a. AP. b. BBC. c.
TVB.
d. MTV.
14. The incredibly popular film industry in India is known as a. Cinemastan. b. all of these. c.
Filmbodia.
d. Bollywood. 15. Authoritarian government has found it difficult to limit their citizen's access to __________, which can be easily used to both receive and send global mass messages. a. movies b. the Internet c.
magazines
d. recorded music 16. Radio and television are popular in a country where a large percentage of the population cannot read. This is an example of the effect on media of a. geography. b. literacy. c.
climate.
d. technology. 17. The BBC's most well-known programming is its a. melodramatic musical productions. b. politically liberal call-in talk shows. c.
news.
d. politically conservative call-in talk shows.
18. Efforts to overcome U.S. cultural imperialism in media programming include which of the following? a. all of these. b. joint programming between U.S. producers and those of audience nations. c.
government bans of imported U.S. programs in some nations.
d. government investment in local media programming in many nations. 19. People in many areas of a mountainous country cannot get very good broadcast television signals, so they rely on cable and telephone connections to the Internet for international news. This is an example of the effect on media of a. geography. b. all of these. c.
cultural values.
d. literacy levels. 20. Media funded by a combination of citizen and government contributions, without use of advertising, are known as a. government media. b. individualized media. c.
political media.
d. public media.
Answers of Self Assessment Questions 1. (d)
2.(b)
3.(c)
4.(d)
5.(a)
6.(b)
7.(a)
8.(a)
9.(c)
10.(d)
11(b)
12.(a)
13.(d)
14.(d)
15.(b)
16.(b)
17.(c)
18.(a)
19.(a)
20.(d)
Chapter-8 Media Evaluation Self Assessment Questions 1. The first television network to, in 1986, successfully break the dominance of the "Big Three" networks was a. ESPN b. PAX c.
Fox
d. WB 2. CATV stands for a. Cat TV, a short-lived cable network featuring shows about cats. b. copycat television, a term used for programs that imitate a popular formats. c.
community-access TV, low-power stations which the law requires be run by local volunteers.
d. community antenna TV, local cable systems used first to deliver broadcast TV in areas with poor reception. 3. All of the following are methods for delivering television programming EXCEPT a. point-to-point equine relay. b. over-air stations. c.
cable.
d. direct broadcast satellite. 4. Although the deadline has been repeatedly delayed, federal law requires television broadcasters to switch soon from __________ to ___________. a. investigative news reporting; government propaganda dissemination b. analog signals; digital transmission c.
over-air broadcasting; direct-broadcast satellite
d. violent programming; sexually-explicit programming 5. Television stations have lobbied the FCC for ten years of extra time in converting from traditional to digital transmission because a. they could not obtain the necessary equipment in time. b. digital technology is not ready to be used.
c.
all of these.
d. they did not want to give up the extra money they make by leasing bandwidth to telephone companies. 6. A television affiliate is a. another term for a superstation. b. a broadcast station that agrees to carry programming from a network. c.
a television executive in charge of developing new inter-media relationships
d. a new TiVo-like device for recording programs. 7. To television advertisers, a quality audience is one that a. has all of these characteristics. b. has no access to TiVo and therefore must watch commercials. c.
pays close attention to programming.
d. has high incomes. 8. Which of the following is a popular news show format? a. newsmagazines b. talk and tabloid shows c.
interview shows
d. all of these
9. Which of the following statements about public television is NOT correct? a. Congress created the Corporation for Public Broadcasting in the 1960s to develop noncommercial programming. b. The Public Broadcasting System, a network for noncommercial television stations, does not pay affiliates to carry its programming; instead, affiliates pay the network. c.
There have been ongoing Congressional debates about funding PBS, mostly led by ideological opponents and fiscal cost-cutters.
d. The greatest threat to PBS has been the encroachment of cable upon its core programming, including documentaries, nature shows, and British productions. 10. Current trends in television include which of the following? a. time, space and advertising shifts b. return to three-network dominance c.
more community gatherings for simultaneous viewing of prime-time programs
d. all of these
11. Cable companies deliver their programs using a. all of these. b. airwaves. c.
wires.
d. people meters. 12. In the early days of television, programs were a. broadcast live, rather than recorded. b. adapted from popular radio programs. c.
usually sponsored by a single advertiser.
d. all of these 13. Syndicated television programs are a. comedies based on popular newspaper comic strips. b. programs produced by cooperating groups of independent television stations for their own use. c.
dramas and reality shows about organized crime.
d. shows made available directly to TV stations, rather than distributed by networks. 14. Which of the following describes current governmental regulations concerning violent television programming. a. Voluntary control by television companies is favored over laws regulating violent content. b. all of these c.
Parents are required to buy and use television sets with V-chips to regulate children's viewing.
d. Violence and "unkind words" are banned in all animated children's cartoons. 15. Superstations make use of which of the following television delivery technologies? a. cable b. satellite c.
all of these
d. over-the-air broadcast 16. After revelations in the 1950s about corruption in their making, there was a steep decline in the popularity of which kind of television show? a. soap operas b. Congressional hearings
c.
quiz shows
d. new broadcasts 17. A nonprofit service funded by the cable industry to show programming of political and government actions is called a. C-SPAN. b. CATV. c.
CPB.
d. CNN. 18. Receiver dishes for direct-broadcast satellite television delivery are about the size of a. a man's wedding ring. b. an Olympic swimming pool. c.
a jelly doughnut.
d. a large pizza. 19. Entertainment shows on television tend to follow several popular formulas because a. the educational brochures and classes needed to help audiences understand a new type of show are too expensive to produce. b. it is less expensive to produce an all-new show than to imitate or copy an alreadypopular format. c.
advertisers are reluctant to risk money on new, unproven types of programming.
d. critics drive audiences away from innovative or creative shows. 20. Deregulation in ownership laws in the 1990s allowed a. media conglomerates to buy both broadcast and cable systems. b. cable companies to buy broadcast stations. c.
telecommunication companies to buy cable companies.
d. all of these.
Answers of Self Assessment Questions 1. (c)
2.(d)
3.(a)
4.(b)
5.(d)
6.(b)
7.(d)
8.(d)
9.(d)
10.(a)
11(c)
12.(d)
13.(d)
14.(a)
15.(c)
16.(c)
17.(a)
18.(d)
19.(c)
20.(d)
Chapter-9 Newspapers Self Assessment Questions 1. In terms of use and advertising revenue, the largest news medium is a. newspapers. b. the Internet. c.
television.
d. radio. 2. Most American newspapers are owned today by a. newspaper groups or chains. b. cooperative journalistic organizations. c.
city governments.
d. wealthy individuals or families. 3. Which of the following is a disadvantage of group, or chain, newspaper ownership? a. An emphasis on profits can result in cost-cutting measures that affect the newspapers' quality. b. Newspapers may become standardized and lose their local distinctiveness. c.
Absentee owners may have no long-term stake in the newspaper's community.
d. All of these.
4. Which of the following is a feature of USA Today? a. a flexible format b. snappy visuals
c.
lengthy articles
d. in-depth political analysis 5. The preference of newspaper chains or groups to acquire newspapers in geographically adjoining areas is known as a. herding. b. clustering. c.
Tacoding.
d. focus grouping. 6. All of the following are challenges facing daily newspapers EXCEPT a. meeting the needs of an increasingly diverse audience. b. declining circulation. c.
providing comprehensive coverage of local and regional news.
d. meeting the needs of younger readers. 7. Although newspapers are increasingly moving toward this small size, many owners prefer to avoid the stigma-laden word a. laptop. b. handbill. c.
tabloid.
d. broadsheet. 8. Which of the following populations is most likely to lack a newspaper targeted to its interests? a. gay, lesbian and transgender people b. non-English speakers c.
rural residents
d. African Americans 9. What is the most significant data related to a newspaper's marketplace success? a. penetration b. paper and production costs c.
circulation
d. advertising revenue 10. In the years since World War II, the number of African American newspapers has a. tripled. b. decreased some.
c.
dwindled to nearly zero.
d. steadily increased. 11. Which of the following is an indictor of quality and credibility in a newspaper? a. There is a large news hole, the area not used for advertisements. b. Coverage shows little evidence of reporters' biases. c.
There is extensive, thorough, and accurate local coverage.
d. All of these 12. Media that cater to the interests of majority, middle-of-the road groups are called a. financial media. b. mainstream media. c.
alternative media.
d. regulatory media. 13. Some observers believe that __________ will eliminate newspapers as a print medium. a. magazines b. public access cable channels c.
the Internet
d. news radio 14. Circulation of Spanish-language newspapers in the United States today is a. strong and growing. b. financially unprofitable. c.
nearly nonexistent.
d. illegal. 15. The Internet is well-suited to provide strong competition for which traditional newspaper money-maker? a. paid subscriptions b. classified advertising c.
all of these.
d. comics 16. Over the past fifty years, the penetration percentages of American newspapers have a. increased greatly. b. increased slowly. c.
stayed about the same.
d. decreased greatly. 17. How many daily newspapers serve most major metropolitan areas in the United States today? a. two b. one c.
zero
d. ten or more 18. Which of the following daily newspapers is read by a national audience? a. The Wall Street Journal b. The New York Times c.
USA Today
d. all of these 19. Most U.S. teenagers today view newspapers as a. essential daily reading. b. highly responsive to their needs and interests. c.
easily replaced by other news sources.
d. actually harmful to their health. 20. Newspaper graphics serve to a. attract reader attention. b. succinctly summarize data. c.
simplify complex information.
d. do all of these.
Answers of Self Assessment Questions 1. (a)
2.(a)
3.(d)
4.(b)
5.(b)
6.(c)
7.(c)
8.(c)
9.(a)
10.(b)
11(d)
12.(b)
13.(c)
14.(a)
15.(b)
16.(d)
17.(b)
18.(d)
19.(c)
20.(d)
Chapter-10 Sales Promotion Self Assessment Questions 1 .A sales promotion which a manufacturer provides to a wholesaler is an example of: a. A new-product promotion. b. An intermediary promotion. c.
A trade promotion.
d. None of these 2 .Which of the following is NOT an advantage of a retailer promotion? a. Increase frequency of purchases. b. Gain more shelf space. c.
Increase store loyalty.
d. None of these
3 .On-pack coupons are an example of: a. Money-based sales promotion. b. Self-liquidating sales promotions. c.
Invitation sales promotions.
d. All of these 4 .What does BOGOFF stand for? a. Buy One Get One For Free. b. Beginning of Great Offer. c.
Bought on Good Offers
d. None of these 5 .On-pack samples are an example of: a. Trade promotions. b. Manufacturer's promotions. c.
Retailer promotions.
d. All of these 6 .A promotion which invites customers to pay a small amount of money,. Together with some proof of purchase, is called: a. A loyalty scheme. b. A retailers' promotion. c.
A self-liquidating promotion.
d. None of these
7 .A free gift attached to the outside of a pack is called: a. In-pack promotion. b. Gift pack promotion. c.
On-pack promotion.
d. None of these
8 .A display in the retail outlet is called: a. Retailer promotion. b. Point-of-sale display. c.
In-store promotion.
d. None of these 9 .An offer to a retailer of a discount in exchange for a larger order is called: a. Count and recount. b. Volume allowance. c.
Discount overrider.
d. None of these 10 .An manufacturer's advertisement stating where goods can be bought is an example of: a. Merchandising allowance. b. Retailer promotion. c.
Co-operative advertising.
d. None of these 11 .The cost of handling a campaign and financing the offers is called: a. Communication cost. b. Fulfilment cost.
c.
Fixed cost.
d. All of these 12 .The cost of artwork, printing, media support and distribution is called: a. Fulfilment cost. b. Fixed cost. c.
Communication cost.
d. None of these
13 .Changes in consumer behaviour as a result of a promotion can be measured by: a. Retail audits. b. Consumer audits. c.
Sales force feedback.
d. None of these 14 .An individual case bonus is an example of: a. Retailer's promotion. b. Manufacturer's promotion. c.
Trade promotion.
d. None of these
15 .Airline frequent-flyer schemes are an example of: a. Sweepstake. b. Loyalty schemes c.
BOGOFF.
d. None of these
16. Which of the following is not an objective of sales promotion? a. Encouraging customers away from competitive offerings b. Generating customer trial of new products c.
Increasing brand awareness
d. Holding and rewarding loyal customers 17. Which of the following is not a sales promotion tool? a. Samples
b. Cash-back offers c.
Advertising specialties
d. None of the above 18. _____________, preapproach, __________, presentation and demonstration, ___________, closing and ___________ are the steps in the selling process. a. Prospecting and qualifying, approach, handling objections b. Prospecting and qualifying, approach, criticising competitors' products, follow-up c.
Meeting customers, approach, handling objections, follow-up
d. Prospecting and qualifying, approach, handling objections, follow-up 19. ____________ marketing emphasises building and maintaining long-term customer relationships by creating superior value. a. Target b. Transaction c.
Relationship
d. Mass 20. Salespeople spend most of their time _________. a. Waiting/travelling b. Face-to-face selling c.
Doing administrative tasks
d. Making service calls
Answers of Self Assessment Questions 1. (c)
2.(b)
3.(a)
4.(a)
5.(b)
6.(c)
7.(c)
8.(b)
9.(b)
10.(c)
11(b)
12.(c)
13.(b)
14.(c)
15.(b)
16.(c)
17.(d)
18.(d)
19.(c)
20.(b)
